It was a flaw that has since been corrected.
Maybe, Maybe not neither of us were there!
It was a flaw that has since been corrected.
I mean about the natural rights of the Constitution applying to the states. It would make absolutely no sense for it to apply only to the federal government while the states can restrict your freedom of speech, religion, right to bear arms, right to a speedy trial, ect. It was an oversight that has been corrected if it indeed did not apply before.Maybe, Maybe not neither of us were there!
10th Amendment V Article 6?
The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people.
10th Amendment - constitution | Laws.com
That’s why a state can never contradict federal law. At least they aren’t supposed to.
No. Just plain Article 6. There are a bunch of Articles that precede the Bill of Rights. Article 6 deals with the Supremacy Clause.
The 10th Amendment just says that the powers not delegated (given) to the United States by the Constitution nor prohibited by it to the states (Self explanatory. The Constitution not prohibiting something to the states) are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people.
It makes no mention of the Bill of Rights not being valid in a state because those aren’t powers given to the government. Those are what the government cannot do the citizenry. Those are prohibitions. No where in that clause does it say that the constitution does not apply to the states. All it says is that any power not given to United States by the government or anything prohibiting the states by the constitution are reserved to the states or the people. That’s it.
Article 6 specifically says that the Constitution, and the Laws of the United States are the Supreme law of the land despite state laws. That’s why a state can never contradict federal law. At least they aren’t supposed to.
There is something to be said for the difference in wording between the 1A and the 2A.https://tenthamendmentcenter.com/2014/10/13/was-the-bill-of-rights-meant-to-apply-to-the-states/
The words “its powers” clearly refer back to the Constitution. The Bill of Rights was intended to “prevent misconstruction or abuse” of the Constitution’s powers as exercised through “the government” – the federal government. Notice the word government is not plural. The Bill of Rights makes no mention of state governments. In fact, the state ratifying conventions had no intention of restricting their state’s own powers. They already had state constitutions to do that job.
There is something to be said for the difference in wording between the 1A and the 2A.
The 1A says "congress shall pass no law" which inherently limits the feds and not the states.
The 2A says just "shall not be infringed" which is much stronger language and binds every level of government, and even some quasi government entities as it turns the RKBA into a fundamental human right.
If you can provide a link I would gladly read it. Every thing I have found says the Bill of Rights (all of them!) only applied to the Federal Government, until the SCOTUS incorporated them to the States through the 14th Amendment's Due Process.
No. No. No. The Constitution is more than the Bill of Rights. The Bill of Rights was added to the Constitution. You should know that. Did you read the preceding Articles to the Bill of Rights? There are quite a few articles . In then they describe the powers of the President, Congress, Supremacy Clause, compensation, the election process, ect.https://tenthamendmentcenter.com/2014/10/13/was-the-bill-of-rights-meant-to-apply-to-the-states/
The words “its powers” clearly refer back to the Constitution. The Bill of Rights was intended to “prevent misconstruction or abuse” of the Constitution’s powers as exercised through “the government” – the federal government. Notice the word government is not plural. The Bill of Rights makes no mention of state governments. In fact, the state ratifying conventions had no intention of restricting their state’s own powers. They already had state constitutions to do that job.
@spat this is from a link I posted in thread #82
The Original Bill of Rights Limited the Federal Government, But Not the States
Two provisions of the Bill of Rights--the First Amendment, which specifically refers to "Congress," and the second clause of the Seventh Amendment, which refers to federal courts--make clear by their language that they are only limits on federal action. The balance of the Bill of Rights, however, sets out rights of the People that, taken at face value, could be said to bar infringements by the states and their sub-divisions as well as by the federal government.
Yet that was not how the Bill of Rights was originally understood. In the first Congress, James Madison proposed an amendment that would bar states from violating "the equal rights of conscience, or the freedom of the press, or the trial by jury in criminal cases." The proposal was defeated, largely because Madison's fellow representatives saw the Bill of Rights as a check on the federal government alone. State constitutions, they thought, already provided whatever rights were needed against state (and local) violations.
The Supreme Court confirmed that the original Bill of Rights only limited the federal government in the 1833 case of Barron v. City of Baltimore.
Right. The Founding Fathers wouldn’t intend for someone to have the right to bail for only federal crimes but not for state crimes or the freedom of speech only in Washington DC but not in Virginia.I don’t know but common sense tells me the state has no constitutional authority infringing on rights protected by the BOR if not the case the BOR really would be meaningless. Seems like a silly argument
And because of this perverse decision an Amendment was legally added to reverse this decision.
It says it right here in Article 6. I’ve posted out numerous times for you.
This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States which shall be made in Pursuance thereof; and all Treaties made, or which shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding.
Oh my God. Talking to you is like talking to a wall. Yes. You are correct. Article 6 doesn’t exist. The Founders intended for the Bill of Rights to only be applicable to Washington DC only and US Military bases.Yes @Willjr75 I know what article 6 says. The BOR's are Amendments to the Constitution
amendment
noun
amend·ment | \ ə-ˈmen(d)-mənt \
Definition of amendment
1a: the process of altering or amending a law or document (such as a constitution) by parliamentary or constitutional procedurerights that were granted by amendment of the Constitution
b: an alteration proposed or effected by this processa constitutional amendment
2: the act of amending something : CORRECTION
3: a material (such as compost or sand) that aids plant growth indirectly by improving the condition of the soilsoil amendments
United States Bill of Rights - Wikipedia
Although Madison's proposed amendments included a provision to extend the protection of some of the Bill of Rights to the states, the amendments that were finally submitted for ratification applied only to the federal government.
You go right ahead and keep arguing with history!
Please post links from source's of fact not your opinion.
Oh my God. Talking to you is like talking to a wall. Yes. You are correct. Article 6 doesn’t exist. The Founders intended for the Bill of Rights to only be applicable to Washington DC only and US Military bases.
The 10th Amendment came after Article 6 Will and took some of the bite out of it! That is why they are called Amendment's to the Constitution! Again show us some links that prove your opinion.
And why are you arguing this anyway? Do you want the Bill of Rights to not apply to the states?
I already did. Article 6. Amendment 10 not mentioning anything about the Bill of Rights or the Constitution not applying to them. The Bill of Rights not being the only thing in the Constitution. A complete breakdown of Amendment 10. The total ridiculousness of the Bill of Rights only applying to D.C. What more do you want?Not at all Will!
But it does not change 200+ years of States Right's and Laws without Court challenge's! So before 2010 the 2A did not apply to the States! Prove me wrong!!
Not at all Will!
But it does not change 200+ years of States Right's and Laws without Court challenge's! So before 2010 the 2A did not apply to the States! Prove me wrong!!
And that is my definition of corruption. Let’s insert a phrase here (Trojan Horse) that will make the decision easier to swallow.McDonald incorporates Heller to the 50 states in addition to DC. That's it. Before McDonald the Heller decision was binding on DC and DC alone.
With that said- its huge.
@Willjr75 to an extent I very much owe you an apology and would like to very publicly make one, though I still question your "trojan horse" mentality vis a vis Scalia.
I re-read Heller as well as (all 8 pages of) Miller. I am not sure why Miller is even discussed in Heller other than it being one of the few (maybe) on point SCOTUS cases that would apply. Granted I did not read the Heller briefs or the transcripts but I did read Nelson Lund's excellent essay on this issue (link forthcoming when i get back to a computer).
I think I've been a bit lazy on Miller vice Heller for a long time but I never threw them up side by side until we had this argument though always thought there was a weird tension there.
Heller - frankly - mis-states Miller. They are incompatible with each other.
Will, though, where you see corruption and fifth column, I see Scalia knowing he was about to issue an opinion of Roe scale and wanting to protect the incremental win- particularly knowing the make up of the Court at the time, and that Heller (at that moment) would only apply to DC.
Appreciate you all making me dig in and think.
McDonald incorporates Heller to the 50 states in addition to DC. That's it. Before McDonald the Heller decision was binding on DC and DC alone.
With that said- its huge.
@Willjr75 to an extent I very much owe you an apology and would like to very publicly make one, though I still question your "trojan horse" mentality vis a vis Scalia.
I re-read Heller as well as (all 8 pages of) Miller. I am not sure why Miller is even discussed in Heller other than it being one of the few (maybe) on point SCOTUS cases that would apply. Granted I did not read the Heller briefs or the transcripts but I did read Nelson Lund's excellent essay on this issue (link forthcoming when i get back to a computer).
I think I've been a bit lazy on Miller vice Heller for a long time but I never threw them up side by side until we had this argument though always thought there was a weird tension there.
Heller - frankly - mis-states Miller. They are incompatible with each other.
Will, though, where you see corruption and fifth column, I see Scalia knowing he was about to issue an opinion of Roe scale and wanting to protect the incremental win- particularly knowing the make up of the Court at the time, and that Heller (at that moment) would only apply to DC.
Appreciate you all making me dig in and think.
Specifically, there is no indication that the Framers of the Amendment intended to enshrine the common-law right of self-defense in the Constitution.
Those damned founding fathers opening their mouths again.
1787
"The laws that forbid the carrying of arms are laws of such a nature. They disarm only those who are neither inclined nor determined to commit crimes.... Such laws make things worse for the assaulted and better for the assailants; they serve rather to encourage than to prevent homicides, for an unarmed man may be attacked with greater confidence than an armed man."
- Thomas Jefferson, Commonplace Book (quoting 18th century criminologist Cesare Beccaria), 1774-1776
"Here every private person is authorized to arm himself, and on the strength of this authority, I do not deny the inhabitants had a right to arm themselves at that time, for their defense, not for offence."
-John Adams 1772
You keep repeating the same shit over and over. It’s been explained to you multiple times. We are done here.Again where is your proof the BOR's applied to the States before the Amendments were incorporated through the 14th Amendment!
You keep repeating the same shit over and over. It’s been explained to you multiple times. We are done here.
I knew that was coming. That’s what you do. You don’t dispute points and just type empty words. When it’s explained to you, you ignore it and go back full circle and say the same thing again. I’ve explained article 6 to you and the 10th amendment numerous times already. All you do is ignore it and keep repeating the same crap over and over. Why should I repeat it again to you? Why should I repeat to you the idiocy of the bill of rights only applying in Washington DC?That's right I will bow down to your opinion over fact!
And because of this perverse decision an Amendment was legally added to reverse this decision.
It says it right here in Article 6. I’ve posted out numerous times for you.
This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States which shall be made in Pursuance thereof; and all Treaties made, or which shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding.